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Earth Science - New York Regents August 2003 Exam

This is a test of your knowledge of Earth science. Use that knowledge to answer all the question in this examination. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables. The Earth Science Reference Tables are supplied separately. Be certain you have a copy of the 2001 Edition (Revised November 2006) of these reference tables before you begin the examination.
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Part A

Answer all questions in this part.


Directions (1-35): For each statement or question, identify the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables.
1. Which statement correctly compares the size, composition, and density of Neptune to Earth?
(1) Neptune is smaller, more gaseous, and less dense.
(2) Neptune is larger, more gaseous, and less dense.
(3) Neptune is smaller, more solid, and more dense.
(4) Neptune is larger, more solid, and more dense.
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

2. A person in New York State worked outdoors in sunlight for several hours on a day in July. Which type of clothing should the person have worn to absorb the least electromagnetic radiation?
(1) dark colored with a rough surface
(2) dark colored with a smooth surface
(3) light colored with a rough surface
(4) light colored with a smooth surface
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

3. The diagram below shows an observer on Earth measuring the altitude of Polaris.

What is the latitude of this observer?
(1) 43° N
(2) 43° S 
(3) 47° N
(4) 47° S
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

4. The diagram below represents Earth at a specific position in its orbit as viewed from space. The shaded area represents nighttime.

Which Earth latitude receives the greatest intensity of insolation when Earth is at the position shown in the diagram?
(1) 0°
(2) 23½° N
(3) 66½° N
(4) 90° N
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

5. Surface ocean currents curve to the right in the Northern Hemisphere because
(1) the Moon spins on its axis
(2) the Moon travels in an orbit around Earth
(3) Earth spins on its axis
(4) Earth travels in an orbit around the Sun
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

6. Which star color indicates the hottest star surface temperature?
(1) blue
(2) white
(3) yellow
(4) red
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

7. What is the dewpoint temperature when the drybulb temperature is 12°C and the wet-bulb temperature is 4°C?
(1) −9°C
(2) 19°C 
(3) 8°C
(4) 4°C
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

8. Letters A, B, C, D, and X on the map below represent locations on Earth. The map shows the latitude-longitude grid.

Solar time is based on the position of the Sun. If the solar time is 1 p.m. at location X, at which location is the solar time 5 p.m.?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

9. The table below shows the duration of insolation (hours of daylight) measured by four observers, W, XY and Z, at four different Earth latitudes on both March 21 and June 21. There were clear skies at all four latitudes on both days.

Which observer was located at the Equator?
(1) W
(2) X 
(3) Y
(4) Z
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

10. Adjacent land and ocean surfaces have the same temperature at sunrise on a clear, calm, summer day. Then the land and water are heated by the Sun for several hours. Which cross section shows the most likely direction of surface winds that will develop at this ocean shore?

2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

11. The diagram below represents Earth at four different positions, A, B, C, and D, in its orbit around the Sun.

Between which positions would New York State be experiencing the summer season?
(1) A and B
(3) C and D
(2) B and C
(4) D and A
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

12. An air mass classified as mP usually forms over which type of Earth surface?
(1) warm land
(2) warm ocean 
(3) cool land
(4) cool ocean
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

13. The air-pressure field map below represents a high-pressure system over the central United States. Isobars show the air pressure, in millibars. Letters A through E represent locations on Earth’s surface.

Between which two locations is the wind speed greatest?
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) D and E
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

14. Surface ocean currents located at 40° south latitude, 90° west longitude generally flow toward the
(1) northeast
(2) southeast
(3) southwest
(4) west
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

15. The arrows on the two maps below show how the monsoon winds over India change direction with the seasons.

How do these winds affect India’s weather in summer and winter?
(1) Summer is cooler and less humid than winter.
(2) Summer is warmer and more humid than winter.
(3) Winter is warmer and less humid than summer.
(4) Winter is cooler and more humid than summer.
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

16. Most water vapor enters Earth’s atmosphere by the processes of
(1) condensation an precipitation
(2) radiation and cementation
(3) conduction and convection
(4) evaporation and transpiration
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

17. At an altitude of 95 miles above Earth’s surface, nearly 100% of the incoming energy from the Sun can be detected. At 55 miles above Earth’s surface, most incoming x-ray radiation and some incoming ultraviolet radiation can no longer be detected. This missing radiation was most likely
(1) absorbed in the thermosphere
(2) absorbed in the mesosphere
(3) reflected by the stratosphere
(4) reflected by the troposphere
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

18. Weather along most fronts is usually cloudy with precipitation because the warm air along most fronts is usually
(1) sinking and cooling, causing water to evaporate
(2) sinking and warming, causing water to evaporate
(3) rising and cooling, causing water vapor to condense
(4) rising and warming, causing water vapor to condense
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

19. Which cross section below best represents the crustal plate motion that is the primary cause of the volcanoes and deep rift valleys found at midocean ridges?

3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

20. The diagram below shows a classroom demonstration. Two identical flashlights were placed in the positions shown and they illuminated areas of varying size, A and B, on a classroom globe. Thermometers were then placed at the center of each illuminated area to measure the rate of temperature increase. Readings were taken over a period of 30 minutes.

Students most likely observed that the temperature of area A increased at a
(1) slower rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays that were less concentrated
(2) slower rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays that were more slanted
(3) faster rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays that were more perpendicular to the surface
(4) faster rate than the temperature of area B because area A received rays with less total energy
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

21. The photograph below shows a broken piece of the mineral calcite.

The calcite breaks in smooth, flat surfaces because calcite
(1) is very dense
(2) is very soft
(3) contains certain impurities
(4) has a regular arrangement of atoms
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

22. Most inferences about the characteristics of Earth’s mantle and core are based on
(1) the behavior of seismic waves in Earth’s interior
(2) well drillings from Earth’s mantle and core
(3) chemical changes in exposed and weathered metamorphic rocks
(4) comparisons between Moon rocks and Earth rocks
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

23. What is the minimum rate of flow at which a stream of water can maintain the transportation of pebbles 1.0 centimeter in diameter?
(1) 50 cm/sec
(2) 100 cm/sec
(3) 150 cm/sec
(4) 200 cm/sec
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

24. Which activity demonstrates chemical weathering?
(1) freezing of water in the cracks of a sandstone sidewalk
(2) abrasion of a streambed by tumbling rocks
(3) grinding of talc into a powder
(4) dissolving of limestone by acid rain
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

25. Unsorted, angular, rough-surfaced cobbles and boulders are found at the base of a cliff. What most likely transported these cobbles and boulders?
(1) running water
(2) wind
(3) gravity
(4) ocean currents
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

26. The seismogram below shows P-wave and S-wave arrival times at a seismic station following an earthquake.

The distance from this seismic station to the epicenter of the earthquake is approximately
(1) 1,600 km
(2) 3,200 km
(3) 4,400 km
(4) 5,600 km
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

27. The table below gives information about the radioactive decay of carbon-14. Part of the table has been deliberately left blank for student use.

After how many years will 1/128 gram of the original carbon-14 remain?
(1) 22,800 yr
(2) 28,500 yr
(3) 34,200 yr
(4) 39,900 yr
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

28. In which layer of Earth's interior is the pressure inferred to be 1.0 million atmospheres?
(1) outer core
(2) inner core
(3) rigid mantle
(4) stiffer mantle
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

29. Which event occurred earliest in geologic history?
(1) appearance of the earliest grasses
(2) appearance of the earliest birds
(3) the Grenville Orogeny
(4) the intrusion of the Palisades Sill
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

30. A very large, circular, impact crater under the coast of Mexico is believed to he approximately 65 million years old. This impact event is inferred to be related to the
(1) appearance of the earliest trilobites
(2) advance and retreat of the last continental ice sheet
(3) extinction of the dinosaurs
(4) formation of Pangea
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

31. The greatest amount of rainwater infiltration occurs on the side of a hill if the surface of a permeable soil has
(1) small soil particles and a steep slope
(2) small soil particles and a gentle slope
(3) large soil particles and a steep slope
(4) large soil particles and a gentle slope
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

32. Which element is most abundant in Earth’s lithosphere?
(1) oxygen
(2) silicon
(3) hydrogen
(4) nitrogen
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

33. A student incorrectly measured the volume of a mineral sample as 83 cubic centimeters when the actual volume was 89 cubic centimeters. What was the student’s approximate percent deviation (percentage of error)?
(1) 6.7%
(2) 7.2%
(3) 9.3%
(4) 14.8%
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

34. The characteristic of the radioactive isotope uranium-238 that makes this isotope useful for accurately dating the age of a rock is the isotope’s
(1) organic origin
(2) constant half-life
(3) common occurrence in sediments
(4) resistance to weathering and erosion
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

35. In which New York State landscape region is Niagara Falls located?
(1) Tug Hill Plateau
(2) St. Lawrence Lowlands
(3) Allegheny Plateau
(4) Erie-Ontario Lowlands
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation



Part B-1

Answer all questions in this part.


Directions (36-50): For each statement or question, identify the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables.
36. The table below shows gravitational data for a planet traveling in an elliptical orbit around a star. The table shows the relative gravitational force between the star and this planet at eight positions in the orbit (letters A through H). Higher numbers indicate stronger gravitational attraction.

Which diagram best represents the positions of the planet in its orbit that would produce the gravitational forces shown in the data table?

2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation


Base your answers to questions 37 through 39 on the weather map below, which shows air temperature and winds for a few locations in the eastern half of the United States. A large low-pressure system is shown on the map.


 
37. Surface winds within this low-pressure system generally flow
(1) clockwise and toward the center of the system
(2) clockwise and away from the center of the system
(3) counterclockwise and toward the center of the system
(4) counterclockwise and away from the center of the system
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

38. Which type of front extends eastward from the low-pressure center?
(1) cold
(2) warm
(3) occluded
(4) stationary
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

39. It the low-pressure center follows a typical storm track, it will move toward the
(1) southwest
(2) southeast
(3) northwest
(4) northeast
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation


Base your answers to questions 40 through 42 on the geologic cross section and the table below. The cross section represents the bedrock structure beneath tour landscape regions, A, B, C, and D.




40. Which terms best describe the surface landscapes of A, B, C, and D?
(1) A—mountains, B—ridges and valleys, C—plateau, D—plain
(2) A—plateau, B—plain, C—mountains, D—ridges and valleys
(3) A—plain, B—mountains, C—plateau, D—plain
(4) A—ridges and valleys, B—plateau, C—plain, D—mountains
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

41. The meandering streams shown in landscape region B usually form where there are
(1) volcanic cones
(2) gentle gradients
(3) many fractures in the bedrock
(4) numerous escarpments
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

42. The sharp, angular flat-topped hills (mesas) in landscape region C were most likely produced by a climate that was
(1) tropical
(2) humid
(3) dry
(4) polar
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation


Base your answers to questions 43 through 47 on the geologic cross section of bedrock shown below. A through G identity rock layers and Q represents a fault. Lines W, XY and Z are locations of unconformities. The rocks have not been overturned.


 
43. Which rock or feature is oldest?
(1) rock A
(2) rock G
(3) fault Q
(4) unconformity Z
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

44. The unconformities shown in the cross section represent
(1) buried erosional surfaces
(2) locations of index fossils
(3) volcanic ash deposits
(4) boundaries between oceanic and continental crust
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

45. The movement of bedrock along fault Q most probably produced
(1) gaps in the rock record
(2) an earthquake
(3) a volcanic lava flow
(4) zones of contact metamorphism
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

46. Which rock most likely formed in the zone of contact between rock E and rock F?
(1) obsidian
(2) slate
(3) metaconglomerate
(4) sandstone
3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

47. Rock layers B, C, and D formed during the Devonian Period. Which fossil might be found in these rock layers?

3

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation


Base your answers to questions 48 and 49 on the diagram below, which shows numbered positions of the Sun at four different times along the Sun’s apparent daily path, as seen by an observer in New York State. Numbers '1' through '4' represent apparent positions of the Sun.


 
48. The observer had the longest shadow when the Sun was at position
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
4

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation

49. During which day of the year is the Sun most likely to follow the apparent path shown?
(1) March 1
(2) July 1
(3) October 1
(4) December 1
2

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation


50. The two photographs below show dates on tombstones found in a cemetery in St. Remy, New York. The tombstones were 5 meters apart and both faced north. Tombstone A had dates cut into the rock in 1922. Tombstone B had dates cut into the rock in 1892.

Which statement best explains why the dates are more difficult to read on tombstone A than on tombstone B?
(1) Tombstone A is composed of minerals less resistant to weathering than tombstone B.
(2) Tombstone A has undergone a longer period of weathering than tombstone B.
(3) Tombstone A experienced cooler temperatures than tombstone B.
(4) Tombstone A was exposed to less acid rain than tombstone B.
1

Contribute Your Answer / Explanation



Part B-2

Answer all questions in this part.


Directions (51-63): Record your answers in the spaces provided below. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables.
51. State the general relationship between a planet’s distance from the Sun and the time a planet takes to complete one orbit around the Sun. [1]
_______
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
The farther a planet is from the Sun, the longer the planet takes to complete one orbit around the Sun.
direct relationship




Base your answers to questions 52 through 54 on the diagram below, which shows the altitude of the Sun at solar noon on certain dates. The positions of the Sun, labeled A, B, and C, were measured by an observer at 42° north latitude. The date when the Sun was observed at position A has been deliberately left blank.


 
52. Which season begins in New York State when the noontime Sun is observed at position A? [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for winter.



53. Position B represents the Sun’s position at solar noon on March 21. On what other date of the year would the noontime Sun be observed at position B? [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
September 21
September 22
September 23
September 24
autumnal equinox
first day of fall



54. What is the total change in altitude that occurs as the noontime Sun appears to move from position A to position C? [1]
_______ degrees
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for 47 degrees.




Base your answers to questions 55 through 57 on the weather station model provided below.

55. On the weather station model provided below, draw the proper symbols to indicate a wind of 25 knots blowing from the southeast. [1]

MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW


Allow 1 credit for correct symbols of both the wind direction and wind speed.



56. What is the actual air pressure shown by this weather station model? [1]
_______ millibars
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for 998.5 millibars.



57. a What specific type of precipitation is occurring at this weather station? [1]
b State one additional weather condition shown by the station model. Explain how this weather condition provides evidence of high relative humidity. [1]
a _______
b Weather condition : _______
Explanation : _______
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[2] a Allow 1 credit for drizzle.
Note: Do not allow credit for rain.
b Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Responses must include both a weather condition and a correct explanation to receive credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:

Weather Condition

   

Explanation

100% cloud cover     indicates that saturated air has condensed
low visibility (¼ mile)      is most likely caused by Water droplets in the air
low air pressure     because humid air is less dense than dry air
Air pressure decreased during the last 3 hours.     This change may indicate that moist air has arrived.




Base your answers to questions 58 through 61 on the contour map below. Letters A through H represent locations in the area represented by the map. Contour lines are labeled in feet.


 
58. Calculate the gradient of the slope along the dashed line between points G and H on the map. Label the answer with the correct units. [2]
Gradient = _______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[2] Allow 1 credit for 50 (±3).

and


Allow 1 credit for the correct unit feet per mile or ft/mi.
Note: Do not allow credit for ft/m.



59. State how the shape of the contour lines crossing the Green River indicates that this river flows toward the southeast. [1]
_______
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Contour lines that cross the Green River bend in the opposite direction of river flow.
Contour lines bend upstream when crossing the Green River.
Contour lines that cross the river form V-shapes. The point of each V-shape indicates the uphill or upstream direction.



60. Which letter represents the highest elevation? [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for D.



61. Explain how the contour lines on the map indicate that the location labeled “Steep Cliff" is accurately named. [1]
_______
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Contour lines are extremely close together.
The most closely spaced contour lines indicate the steepest gradient.




Base your answers to questions 62 and 63 on the isotherm maps below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The maps show the average monthly air temperatures (°F) over a portion of Earth’s surface for January and July.


 
62. The hottest average January temperatures occur at approximately what latitude? [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for 20° south (±8°). The correct compass direction must be included.



63. From January to July, there is a smaller temperature change in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere. Explain why the Southern Hemisphere’s larger ocean-water surface causes this smaller temperature change. [1]
_______
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Water has a higher specific heat than the land.
Water takes a longer time to heat up and cool down than land.





Part C

Answer all questions in this part.


Directions (64-74): Record your answers in the spaces provided below. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables.
Base your answers to questions 64 through 66 on the diagram provided below and on your knowledge of Earth Science. The diagram shows the Sun, Earth, and the Moons orbit around Earth as viewed from space.

64. On the diagram provided below, draw a circle of approximate size to represent the Moon’s position in its orbit when a solar eclipse is viewed from Earth. [1]

MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW



Allow 1 credit for drawing the Moon on the orbit directly between the Sun and Earth.



65. Approximately how many complete revolutions does the Moon make around Earth each month? [1]
_______ revolution (s)
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for 1 or 1.1 revolution.



66. Explain why solar eclipses do not occur every time the Moon revolves around Earth. [1]
_______
_______
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
The Moon’s orbit around Earth is not always in the same plane as Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
The Moon usually passes above or below the Sun as seen from Earth.
The Sun, Moon, and Earth are only occasionally aligned in a straight line.




Base your answers to questions 67 through 70 on the table below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The table shows air temperatures and air pressures recorded by a weather balloon rising over Buffalo, New York.


 
67. On the grid provided below, construct a graph of altitude above sea level and air temperature by following the directions below.
a Plot an X for the air temperature recorded at each altitude shown on the table. [1]
b Connect the Xs with a solid line. [1]

MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW



Allow 1 credit for correctly plotting seven or more points, even if Xs are not used.
and
Allow 1 credit for correctly connecting the plotted Xs or points, even if they are plotted incorrectly.



68. What weather instrument is usually attached to a weather balloon to measure air pressure? [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for barometer or altimeter.



69. State the relationship shown in the table between altitude above sea level and air pressure recorded by the rising weather balloon. [1]
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
inverse relationship
indirect relationship
As elevation increases, air pressure decreases.



70. This rising weather balloon also recorded dewpoint temperatures. It the dewpoint at 1,500 meters was 12°’C, what was the relative humidity of the air at 1,500 meters above sea level? [1]
_______ % relative humidity
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for 100% relative humidity.




Base your answers to questions 71 through 74 on the reading passage below and on your knowledge of Earth science.

Greenhouse Effect


The warming of Earth’s surface and lower atmosphere tends to intensify with an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide. The atmosphere allows a large percentage of the visible light rays from the Sun to reach Earth’s surface. Some of this energy is reradiated by Earth’s surface in the form of long-wave infrared radiation. Much of this infrared radiation warms the atmosphere when it is absorbed by molecules of carbon dioxide and water vapor. A similar warming effect is produced by the glass of a greenhouse, which allows sunlight in the visible range to enter, but prevents infrared radiation from leaving the greenhouse.
The absorption of infrared radiation causes Earth’s surface and the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere to warm to a higher temperature than would otherwise be the case. Without this “greenhouse” warming, Earth’s average surface temperature could be as low as −73°C. The oceans would freeze under such conditions.
Many scientists believe that modern industrialization and the burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) have increased the amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide. This increase may result in an intensified greenhouse effect on Earth causing significant alterations in climate patterns in the future. Scientists estimate that average global temperatures could increase by as much as 5°C by the middle of the 21st century.
71. The lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere has undergone a large increase in temperature due to the presence of greenhouse gases. State the name of this temperaturezone layer. [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for troposphere.



72. State a possible wavelength, in centimeters, of infrared radiation. [1]
_______ cm
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses range from 7.0 × 10−5 to 5.0 × 10−2 according to the Earth Science Reference Tables. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
0.0001 or 0.001 or 0.01
10−4 or 10−3 or 10−2



73. Explain why most scientists believe an increase in the greenhouse effect will cause sea levels to rise. [1]
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, this example:
An increase in global temperatures will cause glaciers and continental ice sheets to gradually melt.



74. State one possible change humans could make to significantly reduce the amount of greenhouse gases added to the atmosphere each year. [1]
_______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Pass a law to limit greenhouse gas emissions.
Stop burning the rain forests.
Increase car pool/mass transit use.




Base your answers to questions 75 through 78 on the Rock Classification flowchart shown below. Letters A, B, and C represent specific rocks in this classification scheme.


 
75. Rock A is composed of very fine-grained quartz and feldspar particles 0.005 centimeter in diameter. State the name of rock A. [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for siltstone.



76. Rock B has a glassy, vesicular texture and is composed mainly of potassium feldspar and quartz. State the name of rock B. [1]
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for pumice.



77. Granite could be placed in the same position in the flowchart above as gabbro. Describe two differences between granite and gabbro. [1]
(1) _______
(2) _______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for two correct responses. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
Granite is lighter in color than gabbro.
Granite is less dense than gabbro.
Granite’s composition is more felsic, while gabbro's composition is more mafic.
Granite contains the minerals potassium feldspar and quartz; gabbro does not.



78. The diagram below represents two magnified views showing the arrangement of minerals before and after metamorphism of rock C. State the name of rock C. [1]

_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[1] Allow 1 credit for gneiss.




Base your answers to questions 79 and 80 on the reading passage and map of the western United States below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The states of Washington and Oregon have been labeled on the map. The plate boundary shown on the map is the source area for high-magnitude earthquakes in Washington and Oregon. Two hazardous zones associated with these earthquakes are also shown.

Washington and Oregon Earthquakes



Large-magnitude earthquakes have occurred in Washington and Oregon as a result of crustal movement along thrust faults bordering the coasts of these states. Thrust faults occur when one section of Earth’s crust slides over another section. Associated with the sudden movement of these thrust faults, coastlines can drop several feet, flooding forests with saltwater. Geologists have discovered evidence from various geologic ages of flooded coastal forests in the bedrock layers of Washington and Oregon. They have also found layers of sandstone thought to have been derived from sand deposits left by tsunamis. Using the rock record, scientists conclude that very large magnitude earthquakes occur every 300 to 500 years with the most recent large quake occurring about 200 years ago.

79. a What is a tsunami? [1]
b State how tsunamis can affect coastal regions. [1]
a _______
_______
b _______
_______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[2] a Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
large ocean wave or series of ocean waves generated by an earthquake
wave caused by an earthquake

Note: Accept the commonly used term tidal wave, but do not accept the response that tsunamis are caused by tides.

b Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
flooding
bringing in sand deposits
destruction of coastal property



80. a Identity the tectonic plates on both sides of the plate boundary shown on the map. [1]
b Identify the type of tectonic plate boundary shown on the map that is responsible for the thrust faults along the Washington and Oregon coastline. [1]
a _______ Plate and _______Plate
b _______
MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW

[2] a Allow 1 credit for Juan de Fuca Plate and North American Plate.
b Allow 1 credit for a correct response. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to, these examples:
subduction zone
convergent plate boundary

or


Allow 1 credit for a response that is consistent with the student’s answer for 800.
Note: Do not allow credit for thrust faults.




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