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Physical Setting / Chemistry - New York Regents June 2014 Exam

   Directions (1–30): For each statement or question, record on your separate answer sheet the number of the
word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions
may require the use of the 2011 Edition Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Chemistry.

Formats Worksheet / Test Paper Quiz Review
: Multiple choice

Your Performance  

1.

1 Compared to the charge of a proton, the charge
  of an electron has
  (1) a greater magnitude and the same sign
  (2) a greater magnitude and the opposite sign
  (3) the same magnitude and the same sign
  (4) the same magnitude and the opposite sign

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2.

2 Which atom has the largest atomic radius?
  (1) potassium           (3) francium
  (2) rubidium            (4) cesium

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3.

3 In the wave-mechanical model of the atom, an
  orbital is defined as
  (1) a region of the most probable proton location
  (2) a region of the most probable electron
      location
  (3) a circular path traveled by a proton around
      the nucleus
  (4) a circular path traveled by an electron
      around the nucleus

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4.

4 When an excited electron in an atom moves to
  the ground state, the electron
  (1) absorbs energy as it moves to a higher
      energy state
  (2) absorbs energy as it moves to a lower energy
      state
  (3) emits energy as it moves to a higher energy
      state
  (4) emits energy as it moves to a lower energy
      state

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5.

5 Which polyatomic ion is found in the compound
  represented by the formula NaHCO3?
  (1) acetate              (3) hydrogen sulfate
  (2) hydrogen carbonate (4) oxalate

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6.

6 The atomic mass of magnesium is the weighted
  average of the atomic masses of
  (1) all of the artificially produced isotopes of Mg
  (2) all of the naturally occurring isotopes of Mg
  (3) the two most abundant artificially produced
      isotopes of Mg
  (4) the two most abundant naturally occurring
      isotopes of Mg

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7.

7 Which element has atoms that can form halide
  ions?
  (1) iodine            (3) strontium
  (2) silver            (4) xenon

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8.

8 Two forms of solid carbon, diamond and
  graphite, differ in their physical properties due
  to the differences in their
  (1) atomic numbers
  (2) crystal structures
  (3) isotopic abundances
  (4) percent compositions

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9.

9 Which quantity can be calculated for a solid
  compound, given only the formula of the com-
  pound and the Periodic Table of the Elements?
  (1) the density of the compound
  (2) the heat of fusion of the compound
  (3) the melting point of each element in the
      compound
  (4) the percent composition by mass of each
      element in the compound

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10.

10 Which terms identify types of chemical
   reactions?
   (1) decomposition and sublimation
   (2) decomposition and synthesis
   (3) deposition and sublimation
   (4) deposition and synthesis

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11.

11 The greatest amount of energy released per
   gram of reactants occurs during a
   (1) redox reaction
   (2) fission reaction
   (3) substitution reaction
   (4) neutralization reaction

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12.

12 Which element has atoms with the strongest
   attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?
   (1) chlorine               (3) fluorine
   (2) nitrogen               (4) oxygen

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13.

13 Compared to the physical and chemical proper-
   ties of the compound NO2, the compound N2O
   has
   (1) different physical properties and different
       chemical properties
   (2) different physical properties and the same
       chemical properties
   (3) the same physical properties and different
       chemical properties
   (4) the same physical properties and the same
       chemical properties

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14.

14 Which phrase describes a molecule of CH4, in
   terms of molecular polarity and distribution of
   charge?
   (1) polar with an asymmetrical distribution of
       charge
   (2) polar with a symmetrical distribution of
       charge
   (3) nonpolar with an asymmetrical distribution
       of charge
   (4) nonpolar with a symmetrical distribution of
       charge

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15.

15 Which sample of copper has atoms with the
   lowest average kinetic energy?
   (1) 10. g at 45°C        (3) 30. g at 25°C
   (2) 20. g at 35°C        (4) 40. g at 15°C

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16.

16 Which change results in the formation of
   different substances?
   (1) burning of propane
   (2) melting of NaCl(s)
   (3) deposition of CO2(g)
   (4) solidification of water

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17.

17 Which substance can not be broken down by a
   chemical change?
   (1) ammonia            (3) propanal
   (2) ethanol            (4) zirconium

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18.

18 According to Table I, which equation represents
   a change resulting in the greatest quantity of
   energy released?
   (1) 2C(s) + 3H2(g) → C2H6(g)
   (2) 2C(s) + 2H2(g) → C2H4(g)
   (3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
   (4) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)

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19.

19 Which element is a liquid at STP?
   (1) bromine              (3) francium
   (2) cesium               (4) iodine

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20.

20 Which statement describes a reversible reaction
   at equilibrium?
   (1) The activation energy of the forward
       reaction must equal the activation energy of
       the reverse reaction.
   (2) The rate of the forward reaction must equal
       the rate of the reverse reaction.
   (3) The concentration of the reactants must
       equal the concentration of the products.
   (4) The potential energy of the reactants must
       equal the potential energy of the products.

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21.

21 Given the balanced equation representing a
   reaction:
                  O2 → O + O
   What occurs during this reaction?
   (1) Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken.
   (2) Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed.
   (3) Energy is released as bonds are broken.
   (4) Energy is released as bonds are formed.

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22.

22 In terms of entropy and energy, systems in
   nature tend to undergo changes toward
   (1) lower entropy and lower energy
   (2) lower entropy and higher energy
   (3) higher entropy and lower energy
   (4) higher entropy and higher energy

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23.

23 Which term is defined as the difference
   between the potential energy of the products
   and the potential energy of the reactants in a
   chemical reaction?
   (1) activation energy   (3) heat of fusion
   (2) thermal energy      (4) heat of reaction

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24.

24 What is the atomic number of the element
   whose atoms bond to each other in chains, rings,
   and networks?
   (1) 10                 (3) 6
   (2) 8                  (4) 4

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25.

25 How many pairs of electrons are shared between
   two adjacent carbon atoms in a saturated
   hydrocarbon?
   (1) 1                   (3) 3
   (2) 2                   (4) 4

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26.

26 Given the balanced equation representing a
   reaction:
           4Al(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2O3(s)
   As the aluminum loses 12 moles of electrons,
   the oxygen
   (1) gains 4 moles of electrons
   (2) gains 12 moles of electrons
   (3) loses 4 moles of electrons
   (4) loses 12 moles of electrons

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27.

27 Which compound is an electrolyte?
   (1) CH3CHO            (3) CH3COOH
   (2) CH3OCH3           (4) CH3CH2CH3

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28.

28 Which statement describes one acid-base
   theory?
   (1) An acid is an H+ acceptor, and a base is an
       H+ donor.
   (2) An acid is an H+ donor, and a base is an H+
       acceptor.
   (3) An acid is an H- acceptor, and a base is an
       H- donor.
   (4) An acid is an H- donor, and a base is an H-
       acceptor.

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29.

29 Which compounds are classified as Arrhenius
   acids?
   (1) HCl and NaOH
   (2) HNO3 and NaCl
   (3) NH3 and H2CO3
   (4) HBr and H2SO4

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30.

30 Which statement describes the stability of the
   nuclei of potassium atoms?
   (1) All potassium atoms have stable nuclei that
       spontaneously decay.
   (2) All potassium atoms have unstable nuclei
       that do not spontaneously decay.
   (3) Some potassium atoms have unstable nuclei
       that spontaneously decay.
   (4) Some potassium atoms have unstable nuclei
       that do not spontaneously decay.

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31.

31 Which notations represent different isotopes of
   the element sodium?
   (1) 32S and 34S        (3) Na+ and Na0
   (2) S2- and S6+        (4) 22Na and 23Na

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32.

32 Which electron configuration represents the
   electrons in an atom of Ga in an excited state?
   (1) 2-8-17-3             (3) 2-8-18-3
   (2) 2-8-17-4             (4) 2-8-18-4

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33.

33 Which statement describes the general trends in
   electronegativity and first ionization energy as
   the elements in Period 3 are considered in order
   from Na to Cl?
   (1) Electronegativity increases, and first
       ionization energy decreases.
   (2) Electronegativity decreases, and first
       ionization energy increases.
   (3) Electronegativity and first ionization energy
       both increase.
   (4) Electronegativity and first ionization energy
       both decrease.

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34.

34 What is the gram-formula mass of Fe(NO3)3?
   (1) 146 g/mol          (3) 214 g/mol
   (2) 194 g/mol          (4) 242 g/mol

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35.

35 Given the balanced equation representing a
   reaction:
   Al2(SO4)3 + 6NaOH → 2Al(OH)3 + 3Na2SO4
   The mole ratio of NaOH to Al(OH)3 is
   (1) 1:1               (3) 3:1
   (2) 1:3               (4) 3:7

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