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Earth Science - New York Regents August 2014

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Part A
Answer all questions in this part.
   Directions (1–35): For each statement or question, choose the word or expression that, of those given, best
completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the 2011 Edition
Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Earth Science. Record your answers on your separate answer sheet.

1.
1 Which evidence best supports the theory that
  the universe was created by an explosion called
  the Big Bang?
  (1) impact craters found on Earth
  (2) cosmic background radiation
  (3) the different compositions of terrestrial and
      Jovian planets
  (4) the blue shift of light from distant galaxies
Answer: 2

2.
2 Which star is more massive than our Sun, but
  has a lower surface temperature?
  (1) 40 Eridani B         (3) Aldebaran
  (2) Sirius               (4) Barnard’s Star
Answer: 3

3.
3 Which color of visible light has the shortest
  wavelength?
  (1) violet              (3) yellow
  (2) green               (4) red
Answer: 1


4.
4 The table below shows the times of ocean
  high tides and low tides on a certain date at a
  New York State location.
At approximately what time on the following day
did the next high tide occur at this location?
(1) 4:40 a.m.             (3) 4:40 p.m.
(2) 5:40 a.m.             (4) 5:40 p.m.
Answer: 2

5.
5 The best evidence of Earth’s rotation is provided
  by the
  (1) shape of Earth’s orbit
  (2) shape of the Milky Way galaxy
  (3) changes in the total yearly duration of
      insolation at a location on Earth
  (4) apparent changes in the direction of swing of
      a Foucault pendulum
Answer: 4

6.
6 The model below shows the apparent path of the
  Sun as seen by an observer in New York State on
  the first day of one of the four seasons.
This apparent path of the Sun was observed on
the first day of
(1) spring               (3) fall
(2) summer               (4) winter
Answer: 4

7.
7 Which processes are most likely to cause a rise in
  the water table?
  (1) runoff and erosion
  (2) precipitation and infiltration
  (3) deposition and burial
  (4) solidification and condensation
Answer: 2

8.
8 During which phase change does water release
  the most heat energy?
  (1) freezing           (3) condensation
  (2) melting            (4) vaporization
Answer: 3

9.
9 What is the average air pressure exerted by
  Earth’s atmosphere at sea level, expressed in
  millibars and inches of mercury?
  (1) 1013.25 mb and 29.92 in of Hg
  (2) 29.92 mb and 1013.25 in of Hg
  (3) 1012.65 mb and 29.91 in of Hg
  (4) 29.91 mb and 1012.65 in of Hg
Answer: 1

10.
10 Which two processes lead to cloud formation in
   rising air?
   (1) compressing and cooling
   (2) compressing and warming
   (3) expanding and cooling
   (4) expanding and warming
Answer: 3

11.
11 The weather station model below shows some of
   the weather data for a certain location.
What is the wind speed shown on the station
model and which instrument is used to measure
the wind speed?
(1) 15 knots, measured by a wind vane
(2) 15 knots, measured by an anemometer
(3) 25 knots, measured by a wind vane
(4) 25 knots, measured by an anemometer
Answer: 4

12.
12 If air has a dry-bulb temperature of 2°C and
   a wet-bulb temperature of –2°C, what is the
   relative humidity?
   (1) 11%                 (3) 36%
   (2) 20%                 (4) 67%
Answer: 3

13.
13 Which current has a cooling effect on the climate
   of the west coast of South America?
   (1) Falkland Current      (3) Benguela Current
   (2) Peru Current          (4) Brazil Current
Answer: 2

14.
14 Near which two latitudes are most of Earth’s dry
   climate regions found?
   (1) 0° and 60° N         (3) 30° N and 60° N
   (2) 0° and 30° S         (4) 30° N and 30° S
Answer: 4

15.
15 Which event followed a massive volcanic eruption
   and led to the cooling of global temperatures?
   (1) thunderstorms that developed near the
       eruption
   (2) the release of carbon dioxide and methane
       gases
   (3) the outflow of magma over Earth’s surface
   (4) the addition of ash particles into the
       atmosphere
Answer: 4


16.
16 Rifting of tectonic plates in eastern North America
   during the Jurassic Period was responsible for the
   (1) formation of the Catskill delta
   (2) first uplift of the Adirondack Mountains
   (3) Alleghenian orogeny
   (4) opening of the Atlantic Ocean
Answer: 4

17.
17 The surface bedrock of Mt. Marcy, New York, is
   composed primarily of which rock?
   (1) anorthosite         (3) quartzite
   (2) marble              (4) hornfels
Answer: 1

18.
18 Much of the evidence for the evolution of lifeforms on Earth has been obtained by
   (1) studying the life spans of present-day animals
   (2) radioactive dating of metamorphic rock
   (3) correlating widespread igneous ash deposits
   (4) examining fossils preserved in the rock
       record
Answer: 4

19.
19 The table below shows the radioactive decay of
   carbon-14. Part of the table has been left blank.
After 22,800 years, approximately what percentage
of the original carbon-14 remains?
(1) 15%                    (3) 6.25%
(2) 12.5%                  (4) 3.125%
Answer: 3

20.
20 The diagram below represents a model of
   Earth’s surface and internal structure. Letters A,
   B, C, and D represent four different layers.
   Some depths below Earth’s surface are shown.
Which Earth layer is inferred to be composed of
solid nickel and iron?
(1) A                     (3) C
(2) B                     (4) D
Answer: 4

21.
21 Oceanic crust is sliding beneath the Aleutian
   Islands in the North Pacific Ocean, forming the
   Aleutian Trench at a
   (1) convergent plate boundary between the
       Pacific Plate and the North American Plate
   (2) convergent plate boundary between the
       Pacific Plate and the Juan de Fuca Plate
   (3) divergent plate boundary between the
       Pacific Plate and the North American Plate
   (4) divergent plate boundary between the
       Pacific Plate and the Juan de Fuca Plate
Answer: 1

22.
22 Which New York State landscape region is
   composed of mostly horizontal sedimentary
   bedrock and has a high elevation?
   (1) Hudson Highlands (3) the Catskills
   (2) Manhattan Prong      (4) Taconic Mountains
Answer: 3

23.
23 Which mineral is commonly mined as a source
   of the element lead (Pb)?
   (1) galena                (3) magnetite
   (2) quartz                (4) gypsum
Answer: 1

24.
24 The block diagram below represents a landscape
   where caverns and sinkholes have gradually
   developed over a long period of time.
Why did these caverns and sinkholes form?
(1) The bedrock chemically reacted with acidic
    groundwater.
(2) This type of bedrock contained large
    amounts of oxygen and silicon.
(3) Glacial deposits altered the shape of the
    bedrock.
(4) Crustal uplift formed gaps in the bedrock.
Answer: 1

25.
25 The block diagram below represents a stream
   flowing from a mountain region.
A brief, heavy rainstorm occurs in the mountains.
How will the volume of water and the rate of
erosion in the stream change shortly after the
rainstorm?
(1) The volume of water will decrease and the
    rate of erosion will increase.
(2) The volume of water will increase and the
    rate of erosion will decrease.
(3) Both the volume of water and the rate of
    erosion will decrease.
(4) Both the volume of water and the rate of
    erosion will increase.
Answer: 4

26.
26 The photograph below shows scratched and
   polished bedrock produced by weathering and
   erosion.
Which agent of erosion most likely carried
sediment that scratched and polished this
bedrock surface?
(1) a moving glacier  (3) wave action
(2) running water     (4) wind
Answer: 1

27.
   Base your answers to questions 27 and 28 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of Earth science.
The diagram represents the Moon at different positions, labeled A, B, C, and D, in its orbit around Earth.
27 At which two Moon positions would an observer on Earth most likely experience the highest high tides and
   the lowest low tides?
   (1) A and B                                     (3) C and A
   (2) B and C                                     (4) D and B
Answer: 3

28.
28 During which Moon phase could an observer on Earth see a lunar eclipse occur?

Answer: 4

29.
29 The graph below shows the varying amount of gravitational attraction between the Sun and an asteroid in
   our solar system. Letters A, B, C, and D indicate four positions in the asteroid’s orbit.
Which diagram best represents the positions of the asteroid in its orbit around the Sun? [Note: The diagrams
are not drawn to scale.]

Answer: 1

30.
30 The map below shows four major time zones of the United States. The dashed lines represent meridians of
   longitude. The locations of New York City and Denver are shown.
What is the time in New York City when it is noon in Denver?
(1) 10 a.m.                                      (3) 3 p.m.
(2) 2 p.m.                                       (4) noon
Answer: 2

31.
31 Which station model shows an air temperature of 75°F and a barometric pressure of 996.3 mb?

Answer: 4

32.
32 The map below shows air pressures recorded in millibars (mb).
Which map shows the correct location of the 996-mb, 1000-mb, and 1004-mb isobars?

Answer: 3

33.
33 The map below shows the amount of snowfall, in inches, produced by a lake-effect snowstorm in central
   New York State.
The wind that produced this snowfall pattern most likely came from the
(1) northeast                                    (3) southeast
(2) northwest                                    (4) southwest
Answer: 2

34.
34 The block diagram below represents an igneous dome that uplifted overlying rock layers, which were then
   weathered and eroded.
Which stream drainage pattern is most likely found on the surface of the area represented by the block
diagram?

Answer: 4

35.
35 On the map below, points A through D represent locations on Earth’s surface.
Which location is positioned over a mantle hot spot?
(1) A                                             (3) C
(2) B                                             (4) D
Answer: 1


Part B–1
Answer all questions in this part.
   Directions (36–50): For each statement or question, choose the word or expression that, of those given, best
completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the 2011 Edition
Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Earth Science. Record your answers on your separate answer sheet.

36.
   Base your answers to questions 36 and 37 on the data table below and on your knowledge of Earth science.
The data table shows information on six major mass extinction events that occurred many million years ago
(mya) in Earth’s history.
36 More than half of brachiopod species became extinct at the end of the
   (1) Devonian Period                              (3) Ordovician Period
   (2) Silurian Period                              (4) Cambrian Period
Answer: 3

37.
37 Which event is generally accepted as the cause of the mass extinction that occurred 65.5 million years ago?
   (1) volcanic eruption                              (3) asteroid impact
   (2) continental collision                          (4) sea-level change
Answer: 3

38.
    Base your answers to questions 38 through 40 on the weather map below and on your knowledge of Earth
science. The map of a portion of eastern North America shows a high-pressure center (H) and a low-pressure
center (L), frontal boundaries, and present weather conditions.
38 Which weather condition is shown along the cold front?
   (1) fog                                          (3) haze
   (2) snow                                         (4) thunderstorms
Answer: 4

39.
39 What was the most likely source region for the air mass over Pennsylvania?
   (1) New York State                                 (3) Gulf of Mexico
   (2) Pacific Ocean                                  (4) Canada
Answer: 3

40.
40 The general surface wind circulation associated with the high-pressure center (H) is most likely
   (1) clockwise and outward                          (3) counterclockwise and outward
   (2) clockwise and inward                           (4) counterclockwise and inward
Answer: 1

41.
   Base your answers to questions 41 through 43 on the passage and diagram below and on your knowledge of
Earth science. The passage describes geologic studies of the Moon. The diagram represents the Moon’s surface
and interior, showing the inferred depth of each layer below the Moon’s surface.
                                                  Moon Studies
                  Scientific instruments left on the Moon’s surface recorded 12,558 moonquakes in
              eight years. Most of these moonquakes originated between 700 km and 1200 km below
              the Moon’s surface. Scientists infer that most moonquakes are caused by the
              gravitational forces between the Moon, Earth, and the Sun.
41 The same type of evidence was used to find the inferred depths of both the Moon’s interior layers and
   Earth’s interior layers. What evidence was used to determine the inferred depth of the boundary between
   the Moon’s mantle and core?
   (1) seismic data recorded on the Moon’s surface
   (2) magnetic data measured on the Moon’s surface
   (3) convection currents mapped in the Moon’s mantle and core
   (4) temperatures measured in the Moon’s mantle and core
Answer: 1

42.
42 What is the inferred thickness of the Moon’s mantle?
   (1) 60 km                                         (3) 1040 km
   (2) 638 km                                        (4) 1738 km
Answer: 3

43.
43 Which planet has an average density most similar to the average density of the Moon?
   (1) Mercury                                       (3) Jupiter
   (2) Mars                                          (4) Neptune
Answer: 2

44.
   Base your answers to questions 44 through 47 on the geologic cross section below and on your knowledge
of Earth science. The cross section represents rock and sediment layers, labeled A through F. Each layer
contains fossil remains, which formed in different depositional environments. Some layers contain index fossils.
The layers have not been overturned.
44 Which pair of organisms existed when the unconsolidated sediment in layer A was deposited?
   (1) birds and trilobites                        (3) ammonoids and grasses
   (2) dinosaurs and mastodonts                    (4) humans and vascular plants
Answer: 4

45.
45 Which rock layer formed mainly from the compaction of plant remains?
   (1) E                                          (3) C
   (2) B                                          (4) F
Answer: 3

46.
46 During which geologic epoch was layer F deposited?
   (1) Late Devonian                               (3) Early Devonian
   (2) Middle Devonian                             (4) Late Silurian
Answer: 2

47.
47 The depositional environment during the time these layers and fossils were deposited
   (1) was consistently marine                      (3) changed from marine to terrestrial (land)
   (2) was consistently terrestrial (land)          (4) changed from terrestrial (land) to marine
Answer: 3

48.
    Base your answers to questions 48 through 50 on the diagram below and on your knowledge of Earth
science. The diagram represents setups of laboratory equipment, labeled A, B, C, and D. This equipment was
used to test the infiltration rate and water retention of four different particle sizes. Each column was filled to
the same level with uniform-sized dry, spherical particles. Water was poured into each column until the water
level rose to the top of the particles. Then, the clamp was opened to allow the water to drain into the beaker
beneath each column.
48 All of the particles in these four columns are classified as
   (1) clay                                              (3) sand
   (2) silt                                              (4) pebbles
Answer: 4

49.
49 Which graph best shows the rate of infiltration of water through the particles in these four columns?

Answer: 2

50.
50 Which column of particles retained the most water after the clamps were opened and the water was drained
   into the beakers?
   (1) A                                             (3) C
   (2) B                                             (4) D
Answer: 1


Part B–2
Answer all questions in this part.
   Directions (51–65): Record your answers in the spaces provided in your answer booklet. Some questions
may require the use of the 2011 Edition Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Earth Science.

51.
    Base your answers to questions 51 through 54 on the cross section of part of Earth’s crust in your answer
booklet and on your knowledge of Earth science. On the cross section, some rock units are labeled with letters
A through I. The rock units have not been overturned. Line XY represents a fault. Line UV represents an unconformity.
 51 On the cross section in your answer booklet, draw two arrows, one on each side of line XY, to show the
    direction of relative movement that has occurred along the fault. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit for one arrow pointing downward on the left side of line XY and one arrow pointing
    upward on the right side of line XY.
    Example of a 1-credit response:


52.
52 Write the letter of the oldest rock unit in the cross section. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for F.


53.
53 Identify the contact metamorphic rock that formed between rock units B and C. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for marble or hornfels.


54.
54 The table below shows the ages of the igneous rock units, determined by radioactive dating.
How many million years ago did rock unit I most likely form? [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for any value greater than 420 million years ago but less than 454 million years ago.


55.
   Base your answers to questions 55 through 58 on the passage and map below and on your knowledge of
Earth science. The map shows a portion of the Dust Bowl in the southern Great Plains.
                                              The Dust Bowl
                 In the 193os, several years of drought affected over 100 million acres in the Great
             Plains from North Dakota to Texas. For several decades before this drought, farmers
             had plowed the prairie and loosened the soil. When the soil became extremely dry
             from lack of rain, strong prairie winds easily removed huge amounts of soil from the
             farms, forming dust storms. This region was called the Dust Bowl.
                 In the spring of 1934, a windstorm lasting a day and a half created a dust cloud
             nearly 2000 kilometers long and caused “muddy rains” in New York State and “black
             snow” in Vermont. Months later, a Colorado storm carried dust approximately
             3 kilometers up into the atmosphere and transported it 3000 kilometers, creating
             twilight conditions at midday in New York State.
55 Identify one human activity that was a major cause of the huge dust storms that formed in the Great Plains
   during the 193os. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — plowing large areas of the plains
            — poor farming practices
            — Farmers loosened the soil.
            — Farmers removed vegetation that had held the soil in place/deforested the land.
            — farming


56.
56 Describe one change in the appearance of the sand particles that were abraded when transported by winds
   within the Dust Bowl region. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — They became more rounded.
            — They became smaller in size/thinner/finer.
            — The outside surface became scratched/frosted/pitted.
            — Sand grains become smoother.


57.
57 Identify the name of the layer of the atmosphere in which the dust particles were transported by the
   Colorado storm to New York State. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for troposphere.


58.
58 Explain why the dust clouds that moved to the east coast of the United States during the 1934 storm were
   composed mostly of silt and clay particles instead of sand. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — The velocity of the wind could carry only small/less dense/flatter particles.
            — Sand is heavier and not likely to be carried that far.
            — The velocity of the wind was not great enough to carry sand particles.
            — Smaller particles are eroded more easily.
            — Silt and clay are smaller-sized particles.


59.
    Base your answers to questions 59 through 62 on the topographic map in your answer booklet and on your
knowledge of Earth science. The map shows an area of New York State that includes a campsite, trail, and
buildings near a lake. Points A, B, C, and D represent locations on the map.
 59 Point A on the topographic map in your answer booklet indicates a certain elevation on the east side of the
    lake. Place an X at the same elevation on the west side of the lake. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit if the center of an X is located in the white area between the 530 m and 540 m
    contour lines on the west side of the lake as shown below.
    Note: Allow credit even if a symbol other than an X is used.
          Do not allow credit if the center of the X touches the 530 or the 540 contour line.


60.
60 On the grid in your answer booklet, construct a topographic profile along line BC. Plot the elevation of each
   contour line that crosses line BC. Connect all seven plots with a line to complete the profile. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit if the centers of all seven student plots are within or touching the rectangles shown
    below and are correctly connected with a line passing within or touching the rectangles. The line
    must show the lowest elevation between 520 m and 530 m, and the highest elevation between
    550 m and 560 m.
    Note: Allow credit if the line does not pass through the student plots but is still within or
          touching the rectangles.
          It is recommended that an overlay of the same scale as the student answer sheet be used to
          ensure reliability in rating.


61.
61 In your answer booklet, circle the phrase that indicates the direction of flow of Woodland Brook. Describe
   the contour-line evidence that supports your answer. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
1 [1] Allow 1 credit if both “into the lake” is circled and the “contour-line evidence” is correct.
      Acceptable evidence includes, but is not limited to:
          — The contour lines bend away from the lake where they cross the stream.
          — The lines do not go straight across, but curve to the southeast when they cross Woodland
            Brook.
          — The contour lines that cross Woodland Brook show the lowest elevation where the brook
            enters the lake.
          — law of the Vs/Contour lines make a V shape that points uphill where they cross a stream.
          — A river flows from a higher elevation to a lower elevation.
       Note: Allow credit if “into the lake” is not circled, but is included in the student’s evidence.


62.
62 Campers hiked along the trail from the shoreline of the lake to point D to view the landscape. Determine
   the average gradient, in meters per kilometer, of the route they took on their hike. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit for any value from 185 m/km to 215 m/km.


63.
     Base your answers to questions 63 through 65 on the diagram in your answer booklet and on your knowledge
of Earth science. The diagram represents a model of Earth’s orbit around the Sun. Arrows represent two
motions of Earth. Distances from the center of the Sun to the center of Earth are indicated in kilometers. Earth
is represented when it is closest to the Sun and when it is farthest from the Sun.
 63 On the diagram in your answer booklet, place an X on Earth’s orbit at one location where Earth’s Northern
    Hemisphere is in winter. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit if the center of the X is within or touching the clear banded region shown below.
    Note: Allow credit if a symbol other than an X is used.
          It is recommended that an overlay of the same scale as the student answer sheet be used to
          ensure reliability in rating.


64.
64 How many degrees is Earth’s axis tilted to a line perpendicular to the plane of Earth’s orbit? [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit for any value from 23.4° to 23.5°.
                                                                       1
    Note: Allow credit if the student indicates a fraction, such as 23 –– .
                                                                        2


65.
65 The diagram in your answer booklet represents Earth at one position in its orbit around the Sun. Starting
   at the North Pole, draw a straight arrow that points to the location of Polaris. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit for an arrow that is aligned with Earth’s axis and is within the cone-shaped area
    shown below.
    Note: It is recommended that an overlay of the same scale as the student answer sheet be used to
          ensure reliability in rating.
          Allow credit even if the arrow does not start exactly at the North Pole.



Part C
Answer all questions in this part.
   Directions (66–85): Record your answers in the spaces provided in your answer booklet. Some questions
may require the use of the 2011 Edition Reference Tables for Physical Setting/Earth Science.

66.
    Base your answers to questions 66 through 68 on the data table below and on the graph in your answer
booklet and on your knowledge of Earth science. The data table lists the number of daylight hours for
a location at 50° N on the 21st day of each month for 1 year. The graph shows the number of daylight hours on
the 21st day of each month for a location at 70° N and for the equator, 0°.
66 On the graph in your answer booklet, plot the number of daylight hours for the 21st day of each month
   listed on the data table. Connect all of your plotted data with a line. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit if the centers of all 12 student plots are within or touching the circles shown below
    and a correctly drawn line passes within or touches each circle.
    Note: Allow credit if the student line does not pass through the student plots but is still within or
          touching the circles.
          It is recommended that an overlay of the same scale as the student answer sheet be used to
          ensure reliability in rating.


67.
67 Explain why the number of daylight hours for all three latitudes was 12 hours on March 21 and
   September 21. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — These dates represent the first days of spring and fall.
            — The Sun rises due east and sets due west at all latitudes.
            — The Sun’s direct rays are at the equator at solar noon on these dates.
            — March 21 and September 21 are equinoxes.
            — There are 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness on an equinox at all latitudes.
            — Earth’s axis is not titled toward the Sun or away from the Sun at that time.


68.
68 Predict the number of daylight hours that occur at 70° S on June 21. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for 0 h.


69.
    Base your answers to questions 69 through 71 on the data table below and on your knowledge of Earth
science. The table shows air temperatures recorded under identical conditions at 2-hour intervals on a sunny
day. Data were recorded 1 meter above ground level both inside and outside of a glass greenhouse.
69 Describe the color and texture of the surfaces inside the greenhouse that would most likely absorb the
   greatest amount of visible light. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit if both responses are acceptable. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            Color: — black
                    — dark
            Texture: — rough
                      — bumpy
                      — uneven
                      — jagged
                      — coarse


70.
70 Calculate the rate of change in the outside air temperature from 8 a.m. to 2 p.m. in Celsius degrees per
   hour. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for a value of 0.5 C°/h.
                                                                                      1
         Note: Do not allow credit for negative values or for any fraction other than –– .
                                                                                        2


71.
71 Most atmospheric scientists infer that global warming is occurring due to an increase in greenhouse gases.
   State the names of two greenhouse gases. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit if both responses are acceptable. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — carbon dioxide/CO2
            — methane/CH4
            — water vapor/H2O
            — chlorofluorocarbons/CFCs
            — nitrous oxide/N2O
            — ozone/O3


72.
    Base your answers to questions 72 through 76 on the side-view model of the solar system in your answer
booklet and on your knowledge of Earth science. The planets are shown in their relative order of distance from
the Sun. Letter A indicates one of the planets.
 72 The center of the asteroid belt is approximately 503 million kilometers from the Sun. In your answer booklet,
    draw an X on the model between two planets to indicate the center of the asteroid belt. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit if the center of the X is drawn in or touches the box shown below.
    Note: Allow credit if a symbol other than an X is used.


73.
73 State the period of rotation at the equator of planet A. Label your answer with the correct units. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for 16 with the correct units. Acceptable units include, but are not limited to:
            —h
            — hrs
            — hours


74.
74 How many million years ago did Earth and the solar system form? [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for a value equivalent to 4600 million years ago.
        Note: If the student crosses out million years ago, allow credit if an equivalent value is expressed
              in other units (e.g. 4.6 billion years ago).


75.
75 Calculate how many times larger the equatorial diameter of the Sun is than the equatorial diameter of
   Venus. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for any value from 115 to 115.003305 times larger.
        Note: Do not allow credit if a unit is included (e.g. 115 km).


76.
76 Identify the process that occurs within the Sun that converts mass into large amounts of energy. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — fusion
            — nuclear fusion
            — conversion of hydrogen to helium/H to He


77.
    Base your answers to questions 77 through 80 on the diagram in your answer booklet and on your knowledge
of Earth science. The diagram represents several common rock-forming minerals and some of the igneous rocks
in which they commonly occur. The minerals are divided into two groups, A and B. Dashed lines connect the
diagram of diorite to the three minerals that are commonly part of diorite’s composition.
 77 On the diagram in your answer booklet, draw five lines to connect the diagram of granite to the symbols of
    the minerals that are commonly part of granite’s composition. [1]

Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
[1] Allow 1 credit if all five lines are drawn from granite to the minerals quartz, potassium feldspar,
    plagioclase feldspar, amphibole, and biotite mica.
    Note: If extra lines are drawn between the minerals and the rocks, all lines must be correct in
          order to receive credit.
    Example of a 1-credit response:


78.
78 Describe one characteristic of the minerals in group A that makes them different from the minerals in
   group B. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
        Group A:
            — lighter colored
            — more felsic
            — lower density
            — lacks magnesium/Mg/iron/Fe
            — rich in silicon/Si/aluminum/Al


79.
79 Based on the Earth Science Reference Tables, identify one other mineral found in some samples of
   diorite that is not shown in the diorite sample in the diagram. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for quartz or pyroxene.


80.
80 A sedimentary rock sample has the same basic mineral composition as granite. Describe one observable
   characteristic of the sedimentary rock that is different from granite. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — The particles are layered.
            — The sedimentary rock may have fossils.
            — There are no intergrown crystals.
            — The sedimentary rock may have rounded or angular fragments.
            — The grains are cemented together.
            — The rock contains different sediments.
            — Sedimentary rock contains fragments.


81.
    Base your answers to questions 81 and 82 on the Atlantic hurricane map below and on your knowledge of Earth
science. The arrows on the map show the tracks of various hurricanes that occurred during late summer and early fall.
81 Describe one ocean surface condition or atmospheric condition that makes the area over the Atlantic Ocean
   between 10° N latitude and 20° N latitude ideal for these hurricanes to form. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — The warm waters that give the hurricane its energy are located in this tropical region of the
              ocean.
            — Warm ocean waters between 10° N and 20° N fuel hurricanes.
            — Warm and/or humid atmospheric conditions exist between 10° N and 20° N.
            — a maritime tropical air mass
            — low air pressure
            — rising air currents
            — low wind shear


82.
82 Several of these hurricanes have affected land areas. Describe two actions that people who
live in hurricane prone areas should take in order to prepare for future hurricanes. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for two acceptable responses. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — learn about hurricane risks for area
            — learn safe emergency evacuation routes/shelter locations
            — obtain/check emergency equipment (radio, flashlight, first-aid kit)
            — have enough water and nonperishable food
            — make sure to have materials to secure home (plywood, shatter-resistant glass, hurricane
              shutters/straps, sandbags)
            — update insurance
        Note: Do not allow credit for any action that implies an imminent hurricane.


83.
    Base your answers to questions 83 through 85 on the maps and table below and on your knowledge of Earth
science. The maps show earthquake intensities (IV to IX), according to the table of the Modified Mercalli
Intensity Scale, for the 1906 and 1989 earthquakes at several locations in California. The asterisk ( ) on each
map is the location of each epicenter. The dashed line represents the location of a major fault.   *
83 Name the major fault along which both of these earthquakes occurred and identify the type of plate tectonic
   boundary that is located along this fault. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit for San Andreas Fault and an acceptable plate tectonic boundary. Acceptable
       boundaries include, but are not limited to:
            — transform boundary/transforming
            — Plates slide horizontally past each other.


84.
84 Based on the Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale, identify the perceived shaking and the observed damage
   that occurred in the San Francisco area during the 1906 earthquake. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit if both responses are correct.
            Perceived shaking: violent
            Observed damage: heavy


85.
85 Explain why Santa Rosa experienced a lower Modified Mercalli intensity shaking than Salinas experienced
   during the 1989 earthquake. [1]
Answer: MODEL ANSWER GIVEN BELOW
 Allow 1 credit. Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to:
            — Santa Rosa was farther from the 1989 earthquake epicenter.
            — Earthquake waves lose energy as they travel outward from the epicenter.
            — As distance from the epicenter increases, intensity decreases.
            — Salinas was closer to the origin of the earthquake.
        Note: All responses must correctly refer to the earthquake epicenter or earthquake origin in order
              to receive credit.



  Try the Quiz :     Earth Science - New York Regents August 2014


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