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Living Environment - New York Regents August 2002 Exam


Directions (1-35): For each statement or question, write on the separate answer sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question.

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: Multiple choice

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1.

A student formulated a hypothesis that cotton will grow larger bolls (pods) if magnesium is added to the soil. The student has two experimental fields of cotton, one with magnesium and one without. Which data should be collected to support this hypothesis?
(1) height of the cotton plants in both fields
(2) diameter of the cotton bolls in both fields
(3) length of the growing season in both fields
(4) color of the cotton bolls in both fields

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2.

To separate leaf pigments, a biologist should use
(1) chromatography
(2) dissection
(3) an electronic balance
(4) a dichotomous key

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3.

A food web is more stable than a food chain because a food web
(1) transfers all of the producer energy to herbivores
(2) reduces the number of niches in the ecosystem
(3) includes alternative pathways for energy flow
(4) includes more consumers than producers

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4.

Which sequence of terms is in the correct order from simplest to most complex?
(1) cells → tissues → organs → organ systems
(2) tissues → organisms → cells → organ systems
(3) cells → tissues → organ systems → organs
(4) organs → organisms → organ systems → cells

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5.

For which organic compounds must information be encoded in DNA for green plants to synthesize the other three compounds?
(1) sugars
(2) starches
(3) fats
(4) proteins

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6.

The diagram below represents the actions of two hormones in the human body. 
This diagram best illustrates
(1) recombination
(2) feedback
(3) insertion
(4) deletion

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7.

The pancreas is an organ connected to the digestive tract of humans by a duct (tube) through which digestive enzymes flow These enzymes are important to the digestive system because they
(1) form proteins needed in the stomach
(2) form the acids that break down food
(3) change food substances into molecules that can pass into the bloodstream and cells
(4) change food materials into wastes that can be passed out of the body

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8.

While viewing a slide of rapidly moving sperm cells, a student concludes that these cells require a large amount of energy to maintain their activity. The organelles that most directly provide this energy are known as
(1) vacuoles
(2) ribosomes
(3) chloroplasts
(4) mitochondria

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9.

Meiosis and fertilization are important processes because they may most immediately result in
(1) many body cells
(2) immune responses
(3) genetic variation
(4) natural selection

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10.

In the diagram below, strands I and II represent portions of a DNA molecule.
Strand II would normally include
(1) AGC
(2) TCG
(3) TAC
(4) GAT

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11.

In Siamese cats, the fur on the ears, paws, tail, and face is usually black or brown, while the rest of the body fur is almost white. If a Siamese cat is kept indoors where it is warm, it may grow fur that is almost white on the ears, paws, tail, and face, while a Siamese cat that stays outside where it is cold, will grow fur that is quite dark on these areas. The best explanation for these changes in fur color is that
(1) an environmental factor influences the expression of this inherited trait
(2) the location of pigment-producing cells determines the DNA code of the genes
(3) skin cells that produce pigments have a higher mutation rate than other cells
(4) the gene for fur color is modified by interactions with the environment

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12.

After a series of cell divisions, an embryo develops different types of body cells such as muscle cells, nerve cells, and blood cells. This development occurs because
(1) the genetic code changes as the cells divide
(2) different segments of the genetic instructions are used to produce different types of cells
(3) different genetic instructions are synthesized to meet the needs of new types of cells
(4) some parts of the genetic materials are lost as a result of fertilization

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13.

The letters in the diagram below represent genes on a particular chromosome.

Gene B contains the code for an enzyme that cannot be synthesized unless gene A is also active. Which statement best explains why this can occur?
(1) A hereditary trait can be determined by more than one gene.
(2) Genes are made up of double-stranded segments of DNA.
(3) All the genes on a chromosome act to produce a single trait.
(4) The first gene on each chromosome controls all the other genes on the chromosome.

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14.

Information related to the organisms found on Earth during various geological time periods is represented in the chart below.
Which statement concerning the first appearance of the organisms over the time period represented in this chart is most likely correct?
(1) Life on Earth has remained the same.
(2) Life on Earth has changed from primitive organisms to more complex organisms.
(3) Life on Earth began with complex organisms and changed to more complex organisms.
(4) Life on Earth has changed rapidly.

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15.

In an area in Africa, temporary pools form where rivers flow during the rainy months. Some fish have developed the ability to use their ventral fins as “feet” to travel on land from one of these temporary pools to another. Other fish in these pools die when the pools dry up. What can be expected to happen in this area after many years?
(1) The fish using ventral fins as “feet” will be present in increasing numbers.
(2) “Feet” in the form of ventral fins will develop on all fish.
(3) The fish using ventral fins as “feet” will develop real feet.
(4) All of the varieties of fish will survive and produce many offspring.

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16.

Some stages in the development of an individual are listed below.
(A) differentiation of cells into tissues
(B) fertilization of egg by sperm
(C) organ development
(D) mitotic cell division of zygote Which sequence represents the correct order of these stages?
(1) ABCD
(2) BCAD
(3) DBCA
(4) BDAC

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17.

The diagram below represents a cell process.

Which statement regarding this process is correct?
(1) Cell B contains the same genetic information that cells A and C contain.
(2) Cell C has DNA that is only 50% identical to cell B.
(3) Cell A has DNA that is only 75% identical to cell B.
(4) Cells A, B, and C contain completely different genetic information.

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18.

The diagram below shows the bones in the forelimbs of two different vertebrate species.
The position and structure of these bones could best be used to make inferences about the
(1) food preferences of these vertebrate species
(2) intelligence of these vertebrate species
(3) history of these vertebrate species
(4) reproductive behavior of these vertebrate species

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19.

Which statement does not correctly describe an adaptation of the human female reproductive system?
(1) It produces gametes in ovaries.
(2) It provides for external fertilization of an egg.
(3) It provides for internal development of the embryo.
(4) It removes excretions produced by the fetus.

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20.

Testes are adapted to produce
(1) body cells involved in embryo formation
(2) immature gametes that undergo mitosis
(3) sperm cells that may be involved in fertilization
(4) gametes with large food supplies that nourish a developing embryo

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21.

In nature, during a 24-hour period, green plants continuously use
(1) carbon dioxide, only
(2) both carbon dioxide and oxygen
(3) oxygen, only
(4) neither carbon dioxide nor oxygen

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22.

To remain healthy, organisms must be able to obtain materials, change the materials, move the materials around, and get rid of waste. These activities directly require
(1) energy from ATP
(2) the replication of DNA
(3) nutrients from inorganic sources
(4) manipulation of altered genes

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23.

Which statement describes all enzymes?
(1) They control the transport of materials.
(2) They provide energy for chemical reactions.
(3) They affect the rate of chemical reactions.
(4) They absorb oxygen from the environment.

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24.

Organisms undergo constant chemical changes as they maintain an internal balance known as
(1) interdependence
(2) homeostasis
(3) synthesis
(4) recombination

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25.

Which condition would most likely result in a human body being unable to defend itself against pathogens and cancerous cells?
(1) a genetic tendency toward a disorder such as diabetes
(2) a parasitic infestation of ringworm on the body
(3) the production of antibodies in response to an infection in the body
(4) the presence in the body of the virus that causes AIDS

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26.

Scientific studies have indicated that there is a higher percentage of allergies in babies fed formula containing cow’s milk than in breast-fed babies. Which statement represents a valid inference made from these studies?
(1) Milk from cows causes allergic reactions in all infants.
(2) Breast feeding prevents all allergies from occurring.
(3) There is no relationship between drinking cow’s milk and having allergies.
(4) Breast milk most likely contains fewer substances that trigger allergies.

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27.

The diagram below represents a model of a food pyramid.

Which statement best describes what happens in this food pyramid?
(1) More organisms die at higher levels than at lower levels, resulting in less mass at higher levels.
(2) Energy is lost to the environment at each level, so less mass can be supported at each higher level.
(3) When organisms die at higher levels, their remains sink to lower levels, increasing the mass of lower levels.
(4) Organisms decay at each level, and thus less mass can be supported at succeedingly higher levels.

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28.

Which energy transfer is least likely to be found in nature?
(1) consumer to consumer
(2) producer to consumer
(3) host to parasite
(4) predator to prey

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29.

Which ecosystem has a better chance of surviving when environmental conditions change over a long period of time?
(1) one with a great deal of genetic diversity
(2) one with plants and animals but no bacteria
(3) one with animals and bacteria but no plants
(4) one with little or no genetic diversity

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30.

The diagrams below show some changes in an environment over time.

Which phrase best describes this sequence of diagrams?
(1) the path of energy through a food web in a natural community
(2) the altering of an ecosystem by a natural disaster
(3) natural communities replacing each other in an orderly sequence
(4) similarities between an aquatic ecosystem and a terrestrial ecosystem

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31.

Which factor is often responsible for the other three?
(1) increase in levels of toxins in both water and air
(2) increase in human population
(3) increased poverty and malnutrition
(4) increased depletion of finite resources

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32.

By causing atmospheric changes through activities such as polluting and careless harvesting, humans have
(1) caused the destruction of habitats
(2) affected global stability in a positive way
(3) established equilibrium in ecosystems
(4) replaced nonrenewable resources

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33.

The diagram below illustrates the relationships between organisms in an ecosystem.

Which change would most likely reduce the population size of the carnivorous fish?
(1) an increase in the autotroph populations
(2) a decrease in the duck population
(3) an increase in the raccoon population
(4) a decrease in pathogens of carnivorous fish

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34.

Dumping raw sewage into a river will lead to a reduction in dissolved oxygen in the water. This reduction will most likely cause
(1) an increase in all fish populations
(2) a decrease in most aquatic animal populations
(3) an increase in depth of the water
(4) a decrease in water temperature

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35.

Which method of controlling populations of mosquitoes most likely involves the least risk of causing damage to the environment?
(1) draining swamps where mosquitoes deposit eggs
(2) spraying adult mosquitoes with pesticides from airplanes
(3) releasing more predators of mosquitoes native to mosquito habitats 
(4) spraying oil on the wet areas where mosquitoes breed

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